MLS clubs are reportedly interested in signing Barcelona forward Robert Lewandowski.
The 35-year-old is currently in the midst of his second season with Barcelona after joining the club from Bayern Munich in the summer of 2022.
Lewandowski quickly established himself as a key part of Xavi's side, netting 23 goals in 34 league appearances during the 2022-23 campaign to help the club win their first La Liga title since 2019.
Despite missing a few games through injury this season, he has gone on to score six goals in 13 competitive matches.
Although he is regarded as Barcelona's main striker, Lewandowski is believed to be attracting interest from the United States.
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According to TUDN USA, a number of MLS clubs are looking to sign the Poland international during the off-season.
The report claims that many teams have identified Lewandowski as a potential candidate to fill one of their designated player spots.
MLS sides could face competition from teams in the Saudi Pro League, who are also keen to recruit someone of Lewandowski's calibre.
The former Bayern man reportedly turned down interest from Saudi Arabia over the summer, but it remains to be seen whether he would entertain future interest from the Middle East.
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Despite being a target for clubs across the globe, Lewandowski would be expected to command a significant transfer fee due to his lengthy contract.
The experienced marksman currently has a deal with Barcelona until the summer of 2026 with an option to extend his stay by a further year.
Meanwhile, on the pitch, Lewandowski played the duration of Tuesday's disappointing 1-0 Champions League defeat to Ukrainian champions Shakhtar Donetsk.
Lewandowski will try to help Barcelona return to winning ways in Sunday's home league meeting with newly-promoted Alaves.
